[B-Greek] Jn 1:1 HN (was) cf. ESTIN

Oun Kwon KwonO at upstate.edu
Tue May 4 10:59:55 EDT 2004


In Jn 1:1 the verb 'was' (HN) is of 'to exist; to be present' (EIMI) which
is different from ESTIN ('to be' a copulative)
 
Thus, the first two phrases are:   'In the beginning the Word was (already
existing) and the Word was (present) (face to face) with God.  
 
However, how do I understand 'was' in the last phrase 'and the Word was
God' (KJV)?   I expect here there should be a 'past' tense form of ESTIN
instead of HN. Or should I understand this phrase to mean 'the Word was
existing/present as what God was' (borrowing a little from New English Bible
rendering)?
 
Please kindly correct me of my ignorance in Greek.
 
Oun J Kwon, M.D.
SUNY Uptate Med University
Syracuse, NY




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