[B-Greek] Jn 1:1 HN (was) cf. ESTIN
Raymond Regalado
fwgk5942 at mb.infoweb.ne.jp
Tue May 4 11:34:19 EDT 2004
On 2004.5.4, at 11:59 PM, Oun Kwon wrote:
> In Jn 1:1 the verb 'was' (HN) is of 'to exist; to be present' (EIMI)
> which
> is different from ESTIN ('to be' a copulative)
>
> Thus, the first two phrases are: 'In the beginning the Word was
> (already
> existing) and the Word was (present) (face to face) with God.
>
> However, how do I understand 'was' in the last phrase 'and the Word was
> God' (KJV)? I expect here there should be a 'past' tense form of
> ESTIN
> instead of HN. Or should I understand this phrase to mean 'the Word was
> existing/present as what God was' (borrowing a little from New English
> Bible
> rendering)?
Isn't HN the "past tense" (imperfect indicative 3 singular) of ESTIN?
Regards,
Raymond Regalado
Tokyo, Japan
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