[B-Greek] Jn 1:1 HN (was) cf. ESTIN

Arie Dirkzwager dirkzwager at pandora.be
Tue May 4 11:44:02 EDT 2004


HN and ESTIN are the imperfect and the present of the same verb.
Already Aristotle saw that the verb EIMI can be used in connection with
several kinds of information:
about substance (OUSIA, e.g. man, animal),
quantity (POSON e.g. length),
quality (POION, e.g. white, intelligent),
relation (PROS TI, e.g. half, bigger),
place (POU, e.g. in the Lyceum),
time (POTE, e.g. yesterday),
position (KEISQAI, e.g. is sitting),
situation (ECEIN, e.g. is wearing shoes),
activity (POIEIN, e.g. is cutting),
being the object of something (PASCEIN, e.g. is being cut).

I would add that EIMI without further information means to exist (a fact
that Aristotle knew very well too). But it remains the same verb.

So looking from the possibilities of the Greek language you have many
possibilities if you read the verb EIMI. Finding the right possibility is
therefore a matter of interpretation.

Arie


Dr. A. Dirkzwager
Hoeselt, Belgium
e-mail dirkzwager at pandora.be

----- Oorspronkelijk bericht -----
Van: "Oun Kwon" <KwonO at upstate.edu>
Aan: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Verzonden: dinsdag 4 mei 2004 16:59
Onderwerp: [B-Greek] Jn 1:1 HN (was) cf. ESTIN


> In Jn 1:1 the verb 'was' (HN) is of 'to exist; to be present' (EIMI) which
> is different from ESTIN ('to be' a copulative)
>
> Thus, the first two phrases are:   'In the beginning the Word was (already
> existing) and the Word was (present) (face to face) with God.
>
> However, how do I understand 'was' in the last phrase 'and the Word was
> God' (KJV)?   I expect here there should be a 'past' tense form of ESTIN
> instead of HN. Or should I understand this phrase to mean 'the Word was
> existing/present as what God was' (borrowing a little from New English
Bible
> rendering)?
>
> Please kindly correct me of my ignorance in Greek.
>
> Oun J Kwon, M.D.
> SUNY Uptate Med University
> Syracuse, NY
>
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> B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
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