[B-Greek] PARADIDWMI
Jeffrey B. Gibson
jgibson000 at comcast.net
Thu May 20 15:03:59 EDT 2004
I note with interest that a recent author of a book on Judas seems to
claim that the verb PARADIDWMI was never used with the sense of "betray"
and therefore that translations of, say, 1 Cor 15:24 in which Paul is
made to speak of Jesus' "betrayal", rather than his being "handed over"
are wrong.
And yet I see that LSJ notes that "betray" is indeed one of the senses
with which PARADIDOMI was used. So does Spicq.
So who is correct in this? Are there indeed instances in Hellenistic
literature where PARADIDWMI clearly means "betray"?
Yours,
Jeffrey
--
Jeffrey B. Gibson
Chicago, Illinois
e-mail jgibson000 at comcast.net
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