[B-Greek] PARADIDWMI

Barry nebarry at verizon.net
Thu May 20 16:01:23 EDT 2004


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Jeffrey B. Gibson" <jgibson000 at comcast.net>
To: "b-greek" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thursday, May 20, 2004 3:03 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] PARADIDWMI


> I note with interest that a recent author of a book on Judas seems to
> claim that the verb PARADIDWMI was never used with the sense of "betray"
> and therefore that translations of, say, 1 Cor 15:24 in which Paul is
> made to speak of Jesus' "betrayal", rather than his being "handed over"
> are wrong.

Reference?

> And yet I see that LSJ notes that "betray" is indeed one of the senses
> with which PARADIDOMI was used. So does Spicq.
>
> So who is correct in this?  Are there indeed  instances in Hellenistic
> literature where PARADIDWMI clearly means "betray"?

It's hard to say without evaluating the specific arguments.  Does the author
deal directly with the citations from the lexical sources which claim that the
word does mean betray?  How is the evidence from the NT presented?

Just offhand, it sounds as though he/she might have a theological, rather than a
semantical agenda...

N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Professor of Theological and Biblical Studies
 The Center for Urban Theological Studies
         Philadelphia, PA
http://mysite.verizon.net/vze1yfx7/






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