[B-Greek] WARNING John 1:1 - 'and the Logos (Word) was a Lord'?

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Thu May 20 20:46:48 EDT 2004


To all appearances this is a hypothetical and general question of a broad
interpretational nature that doesn't address the Biblical Greek text as
written or extant in the MSS. I would URGE that responses any B-Greeker
wishes to make to this inquiry be sent OFF-LIST directly to the sender
rather than to the list.

At 6:19 PM -0400 5/20/04, Alan R. Craig wrote:
>Dear Inquirers,
>
>Although it's been quite a while since I've had any interaction with
>anyone on the b-greek list, I would welcome any feedback on the following.
>
>Since, as I understand it, the term QEOS (theos) is mainly a title, might
>it help our understaning of its use in John 1:1 if we were to simply
>substitute it by another title, that is, in helping to explain what is
>going on by John's use of the other?
>
>Employing a as model the wording as set forth within Deuteronomy 10:17 -
>"Jehovah your God, he is . . . Lord of lords"* - if we were to simply
>substitute "Lord" and "lord" for John's two distinct uses of the Greek
>theos, we would then see John 1:1, 2 possibly reading:
>
>In the beginning was the Word,
>and the Word was with the Lord,
>and the Word was a lord.**
>This [lord] was with the Lord in the beginning.
>
>* Quotation of Deuteronomy 10:17 is taken from the "American Standard
>Version [ASV], The Cross-Reference Bible, With Topical Analysis and Cross
>References, With Variorum Readings and
>Renderings, [this edition] Originally Printed in 1910." The ASV was first
>published in 1901. Monser, Harold E. (b.1868-d.1910), editor-in-chief.
>(Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Book House, 1959). BS190 .A1 1959.G7 /
>59-008342.
>
>** With regard to Jesus being called "a lord," it might be good to
>remember that, even with respect to this title, it was one which had been
>assigned to him by His own God and Father. On this, please consult Acts
>2:36, wherein the apostle Peter tells us that `God had made him Lord.'
>Compare also: Matthew 11:27; 28:18; Luke 10:22; John 3:35; 17:2 Acts 5:31;
>1 Corinthians 15:25; Ephesians 1:20, 21.
>
>Furthermore, in respects to John 1:1 & 2, as a follow thru to use of the
>pattern of 'Lord' and `lord' (from Deuteronomy 10:17), in order to show
>further reason for the appropriateness in the use of this 'test substitute
>application,' it might be good to also take note of the way in which Psalm
>110:1 had been quoted and applied to Jesus. For this, see: Matthew 22:44;
>Mark 12:36; Luke 20:42, 43; Acts 2:34, 35. Compare also: Matthew 26:64; 1
>Corinthians 15:25; Hebrews 1:13.
>
>For more on the use of ky´ros within the Bible, and especially with
>respect to its use for Jesus, please consult the article within the
>"Files" section of the JohnOneOne Yahoo discussion group entitled:
>
>Lord.rtf
>
>"Lord/lord" - Biblical Usage. Articles taken from: "Insight on the
>Scriptures," vol. 2, "Lord," pp. 265-7; "The Watchtower," June 1, 1994,
>pp. 28-31, "'Jesus Christ Is Lord'-How and When?"
>
>http://f4.grp.yahoofs.com/v1/UBytQNaYypFTYZj2y07DrkdV-
>JYps4ZLk69z1Z4i4M9C1HM-lceSd8WW0poB0-ZbF14MWAL0LY8dJWX-r4p6/Lord.rtf
>
>Interestingly, if John had indeed used ky´ros (Lord/lord) there, do you
>think these same issues would have been raised - that is, as to whether
>John 1:1 should read,
>
>In the beginning was the Word,
>And the Word was with the Lord [God],
>And the Word was the Lord [God].
>
>or,
>
>In the beginning was the Word,
>And the Word was with the Lord [God],
>And the Word was a Lord [different from God].
>
>What do you think?
>
>Agape, Alan R. Craig.
>ResearchLC at earthlink.net
>http://groups.yahoo.com/group/JohnOneOne/
>---
>B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
>B-Greek mailing list
>B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek

-- 

Carl W. Conrad
Co-Chair, B-Greek List
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/



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