[B-Greek] John 1:1 - 'and the Logos (Word) was a Lord'?
Alan R. Craig
researchlc at earthlink.net
Thu May 20 18:19:27 EDT 2004
Dear Inquirers,
Although it's been quite a while since I've had any interaction with anyone on the b-greek list, I would welcome any feedback on the following.
Since, as I understand it, the term QEOS (theos) is mainly a title, might it help our understaning of its use in John 1:1 if we were to simply substitute it by another title, that is, in helping to explain what is going on by John's use of the other?
Employing a as model the wording as set forth within Deuteronomy 10:17 - "Jehovah your God, he is . . . Lord of lords"* - if we were to simply substitute "Lord" and "lord" for John's two distinct uses of the Greek theos, we would then see John 1:1, 2 possibly reading:
In the beginning was the Word,
and the Word was with the Lord,
and the Word was a lord.**
This [lord] was with the Lord in the beginning.
* Quotation of Deuteronomy 10:17 is taken from the "American Standard Version [ASV], The Cross-Reference Bible, With Topical Analysis and Cross References, With Variorum Readings and
Renderings, [this edition] Originally Printed in 1910." The ASV was first published in 1901. Monser, Harold E. (b.1868-d.1910), editor-in-chief. (Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Book House, 1959). BS190 .A1 1959.G7 / 59-008342.
** With regard to Jesus being called "a lord," it might be good to remember that, even with respect to this title, it was one which had been assigned to him by His own God and Father. On this, please consult Acts 2:36, wherein the apostle Peter tells us that `God had made him Lord.' Compare also: Matthew 11:27; 28:18; Luke 10:22; John 3:35; 17:2 Acts 5:31; 1 Corinthians 15:25; Ephesians 1:20, 21.
Furthermore, in respects to John 1:1 & 2, as a follow thru to use of the pattern of 'Lord' and `lord' (from Deuteronomy 10:17), in order to show further reason for the appropriateness in the use of this 'test substitute application,' it might be good to also take note of the way in which Psalm 110:1 had been quoted and applied to Jesus. For this, see: Matthew 22:44; Mark 12:36; Luke 20:42, 43; Acts 2:34, 35. Compare also: Matthew 26:64; 1 Corinthians 15:25; Hebrews 1:13.
For more on the use of ky´ros within the Bible, and especially with respect to its use for Jesus, please consult the article within the "Files" section of the JohnOneOne Yahoo discussion group entitled:
Lord.rtf
"Lord/lord" - Biblical Usage. Articles taken from: "Insight on the Scriptures," vol. 2, "Lord," pp. 265-7; "The Watchtower," June 1, 1994, pp. 28-31, "'Jesus Christ Is Lord'-How and When?"
http://f4.grp.yahoofs.com/v1/UBytQNaYypFTYZj2y07DrkdV-
JYps4ZLk69z1Z4i4M9C1HM-lceSd8WW0poB0-ZbF14MWAL0LY8dJWX-r4p6/Lord.rtf
Interestingly, if John had indeed used ky´ros (Lord/lord) there, do you think these same issues would have been raised - that is, as to whether John 1:1 should read,
In the beginning was the Word,
And the Word was with the Lord [God],
And the Word was the Lord [God].
or,
In the beginning was the Word,
And the Word was with the Lord [God],
And the Word was a Lord [different from God].
What do you think?
Agape, Alan R. Craig.
ResearchLC at earthlink.net
http://groups.yahoo.com/group/JohnOneOne/
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