[B-Greek] Romans 11.26: ASEBEIAS

A. Philip Brown II pbrown at GBS.EDU
Sat May 22 14:20:39 EDT 2004


I can think of no instance in the NT where an object of a preposition
precedes the preposition.  If there are such cases, I would like to know
about them.

I know places where a genitive pronoun will precede the noun it modifies,
rather than the normal syntact of substantive followed by genitive.

A quick scan through BDAG's entry for APO identified no instances in which
APO is preceded by its object.

Further, since this is a quote from the LXX and the Hebrew of Isa. 59:20
unequivocally has 'transgression' as the direct object of the verb, I would
think taking ASEBEIAS as the object of APO is impossible.

Philip Brown

> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
> [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org]On Behalf Of
> dstorm at sorenkierkegaard.org
> Sent: Saturday, May 22, 2004 2:08 PM
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: [B-Greek] Romans 11.26: ASEBEIAS
>
>
> Romans 11.26 says, APOSTREYEI ASEBEIAS APO IAKWB.
>
> I have checked all NT references to APOSTREFW, and see that it takes an
> accusative d.o. Am I correct in understanding ASEBEIAS to be acc.
> plural? And
> if so, is the sense acts of godlessless?
>
> However, sometimes the preposition can follow the noun. Is there
> any chance
> that ASEBEIAS is gen. sg. and that the verse means "he will turn
> Jacob from
> ungodliness"?
>
> D. Anthony Storm
> Redmond, WA
> dstorm at sorenkierkegaard.org
>
>
>
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