[B-Greek] Romans 11.26: ASEBEIAS
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Sat May 22 17:04:52 EDT 2004
At 2:20 PM -0400 5/22/04, A. Philip Brown II wrote:
>I can think of no instance in the NT where an object of a preposition
>precedes the preposition. If there are such cases, I would like to know
>about them.
>
>I know places where a genitive pronoun will precede the noun it modifies,
>rather than the normal syntact of substantive followed by genitive.
In Classical Attic hENEKA "for the sake of" regularly follows a genitive
case form; in the GNT it's more commonly hENEKEN and generally the genitive
case follows hENEKA, but Luke has it in Acts 19:32 ... OUK HiDEISAN TINOS
hENEKA SUNELHLUQEISAN; I suppose one might argue that TINOS hENEKA is a
phrase simply equivalent to DIA TI, "why?", but I'd guess that the usage in
Acts is a survival or deliberate usage of literary Greek.
In Classical Attic poetry it's common for a disyllabic preposition to
appear at the end of a line, in which case the accent recedes to the penult
from its normal position on the ultima.
--
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/
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