[B-Greek] hINA and Mark

Peter Hamm peter at hamm-multimedia.com
Fri Nov 12 09:55:07 EST 2004


I would like to pose an interesting question (at least to me) to some of the
experts who are on this list. I'm not necessarily looking for a theological
answer but merely a linguistic one.

On the surface, it would appear that the use of the word hINA in Mark 4:12,
usually translated "so that" in this case, indicates that Jeus might be
speaking in parables for a stated purpose of making his listeners "see but
not perceive" and "hear but not understand". It seems sort of cruel on the
surface, doesn't it. But I believe I've seen this word used elsewhere in
Mark more emphatically, perhaps showing a more "causal" relationship (I am
pretty sure I saw that when I checked BDAG... Sorry, I left my notes on this
at home and I need a quick answer on this for one of the "seekers" I
associate with). I hope I'm making sense.

In any case, is the interpretation that Jesus is, one could almost say,
deliberately deceiving certain people (the disciples didn't even understand
this parable until it was explained) by using parables one that is borne out
in the text? Or is this simply a means of saying that this result is
inevitable based on Scripture. Again, I'm merely looking for a linguistic
perspective, not a theological one, in keeping with the spirit of this list.
The theological implications of both perspectives are, I think, obvious.

Thanks so much for your time,
Peter Hamm
Greek Newbie





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