[B-Greek] hINA and Mark

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Fri Nov 12 10:29:23 EST 2004


At 9:55 AM -0500 11/12/04, Peter Hamm wrote:
>I would like to pose an interesting question (at least to me) to some of the
>experts who are on this list. I'm not necessarily looking for a theological
>answer but merely a linguistic one.
>
>On the surface, it would appear that the use of the word hINA in Mark 4:12,
>usually translated "so that" in this case, indicates that Jeus might be
>speaking in parables for a stated purpose of making his listeners "see but
>not perceive" and "hear but not understand". It seems sort of cruel on the
>surface, doesn't it. But I believe I've seen this word used elsewhere in
>Mark more emphatically, perhaps showing a more "causal" relationship (I am
>pretty sure I saw that when I checked BDAG... Sorry, I left my notes on this
>at home and I need a quick answer on this for one of the "seekers" I
>associate with). I hope I'm making sense.
>
>In any case, is the interpretation that Jesus is, one could almost say,
>deliberately deceiving certain people (the disciples didn't even understand
>this parable until it was explained) by using parables one that is borne out
>in the text? Or is this simply a means of saying that this result is
>inevitable based on Scripture. Again, I'm merely looking for a linguistic
>perspective, not a theological one, in keeping with the spirit of this list.
>The theological implications of both perspectives are, I think, obvious.

Mk 4:11 ... EKEINOIS DE TOIS EXW EN PARABOLAIS TA PANTA GINETAI, 12 hINA
BLEPONTES BLEPWSIN KAI MH IDWSIN, KAI AKOUONTES AKOUWSIN KAI MH SUNIWSIN,
MHPOTE EPISTREYWSIN KAI AFEQHi AUTOIS.

Frankly, I don't think that anything said about hINA + subjunctive is going
to resolve the questions you are concerned with. The hINA-clause must
depend upon GINETAI in verse 11 and certainly seems to be a purpose clause.
The interpretation of this goes much deeper and will involve any inquirer
in larger questions about the intent of the evangelist here and through his
gospel, and even about the intent of Isaiah in the passage cited. You'll
probably need to sift through a number of commentaries. I have my own views
on this that I've expressed in my "Brief Commentary"
(http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/Mark/), but I don't think you're going to
find a simple and definitive answer to your question anywhere. The most
thoughtful and provocative study of the problems involved in this that I
have ever read was the book by Frank Kermode entitled _The Genesis of
Secrecy_.
http://www.amazon.com/exec/obidos/search-handle-form/002-7493537-4141600

The larger questions about this text are not really questions about the
Greek text, but the only discussion that is really appropriate in this
forum concerns the Greek text itself.
-- 

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/



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