[B-Greek] Jn. 8:40
Minton, Ron
rminton at bible.edu
Tue Nov 23 12:23:21 EST 2004
I meant: But what is the grammatical term for the nom masc sing prn taking a
first person verb instead of a third person verb?
Ron Minton
-----Original Message-----
From: gfsomsel at juno.com [mailto:gfsomsel at juno.com]
Sent: Tuesday, November 23, 2004 11:21 AM
Cc: rminton at bible.edu; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Jn. 8:40
On Tue, 23 Nov 2004 "Minton, Ron" <rminton at bible.edu> writes:
> But what is the grammatical term for the nom masc sing prn taking a third
> person verb instead of a first person verb?
> Ron Minton
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: gfsomsel at juno.com [mailto:gfsomsel at juno.com]
> Sent: Tuesday, November 23, 2004 11:01 AM
> To: rminton at bible.edu
> Cc: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Jn. 8:40
>
> On Tue, 23 Nov 2004 10:48:58 -0500 "Minton, Ron"
> <rminton at bible.edu>
> writes:
> > What is the Greek construction called in John 8:40 when the
> relative
> > pronoun hos seems to be the subject of the verb I speak? It would
> seem
> that a third singular verb should be found, but we find a first
> person.
> > Does anyone have additional examples of this?
> >
> > Prof. Ron Minton
> > Capital Bible Seminary
> > 6511 Princess Garden Pkwy
> > Lanham, MD 20706
> > W 240-387-1274
> > C 240-432-8925
> > H 301-918-1792
> >
> > ---
>
> TEXT:
> NUN DE ZHTEITE ME APOKTEINAI ANQRWPON hOS THN ALHQEIAN hUMIN
> LELALHKA hHN
> HKOUSA PARA TOU QEOU . . .
>
> It's a relative clause describing ANQRWPON which in turn is in
> apposition to ME which is the object of the inf APOKTEINAI.
> george
> gfsomsel
_______________
Now I'm confused. Why would you expect it to be anything other than a 3
s since ANQRWPON is that to which hOS . . . LELALHKA refers?
BTW: Greek doesn't have a 3 M.s. finite verb. I think you've been
reading Hebrew which does distinguish.
george
gfsomsel
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