[B-Greek] BDAG on QEOS and John 1:1

Dan Parker stoixein at sdf.lonestar.org
Thu Nov 25 13:53:10 EST 2004


Dear scholars,
The excellent Bauer-Danker-Arndt-Gingrich distinguishes QEOS when
used of Christ in section #2 as neither _equating_ Christ with
the Father who they identify as the God referenced by the Shema of 
Israel with:

	BDAG 405-406 2 "Some writings in our lit. use the word 
	Q. w. ref. to Christ(without necessarily equating Christ 
	with the Father and therefore in harmony with the Shema of Israel 
	Dt. 6:4; cp  Mk 10:18  and 4a below) though the interpretation 
	of some of the pass. is in debate. 

Notice how their reference to Mark 10:18 compared to Dt 6:4 highlights
this distinction between the Father as QEOS and the Christ as QEOS.
It is interesting that Bauer's German edtion adds "dem obersten Gott" 
(the uppermost God) as a description of the Father. 


They continue by commenting upon the usage of the word QEOS in the
context of the time when the Bible was written in both the Jewish
setting and that of Greek and Roman world at that time.


	In Mosaic and Gr-Rom traditions the fundamental semantic component 
	in the understanding of deity is the factor of performance, namely 
	saviorhood or extraordinary contributions to one's society. 


They then offer this quote from a 2nd century Christian work:

	Dg. 10:6 defines the ancient perspective: 
	hOS hA PARA TOU QEOU LABWN EXEI TAUTA TOIS EPIDEOMENOIS 
	XORHGWN QEOS GINETAI TWN LAMBANANTWN 

and render this as:

	"one who ministers to the needy what one has received from God 
	proves to be a god to the recipients (cp. Sb III, 6263, 27 of 
	a mother)."

They also touch upon the verse which started this thread, John 1:1
and help inform our view of the sense of QEOS as being the same
as the quote above.  They say:


	In any event Q. certainly refers to Christ, as one who manifests 
	primary characteristics of deity, in the foll. NT pass.: J 1:1b 
	(w. hO QEOS 1:a, which refers to God in the monotheistic context 
	of Israel's tradition. 

Once again they contrast the usage of QEOS when the Father is in view
as being God in the "monotheistic context of Israel's tradition" of
the Shema which serves as a Jewish creed for this concept.

They realize that calling Christ QEOS in this context is a problem for
someand so they say to see the following verses to illustrate how
QEOS at John 1:1 should be understood.

	On the problem raised by such attribution s. J 10:34 
	(cp. Ex 7:1; Ps 81:6)

It is interesting to note that in Exodus 7:1 in the LXX Moses is referred
to as "a god" in the context of the representitive of God and
the savior of his people.  This well illustrates the "saviorhood"
mentioned earlier.


Best Regards,
Dan Parker



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