[B-Greek] 1John 2:18

Dony K. Donev dony at cupandcross.com
Thu Sep 2 19:33:39 EDT 2004


Well, "have become" seems to cover both past and present as the very meaning
of the word conveys a result of a past process through which if one has
become in the past, it is probable that he/she remains in the "becoming"
condition. As Arie pointed out, however, such rendering of GEGONASIN may not
be appropriate, although I cannot resist making a parallel with Genesis 1:2
where the LXX also uses imperfect tense of EIMI to translate the Hebrew HAYA
in order to say that the earth was/became TOHU va BOHU.



Dony K. Donev





----- Original Message -----
From: "Eddie Mishoe" <edmishoe at yahoo.com>
To: "Arie Dirkzwager" <dirkzwager at pandora.be>; "Dony K. Donev"
<dony at cupandcross.com>; <B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thursday, September 02, 2004 1:12 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] 1John 2:18


> Dony:
>
> I think "have become" or "have been" both miss the
> Perfect tense here. That is why John uses the adverb
> NUN in conjunction with the Perfect tense: the Perfect
> tense denotes a current state of affairs (so NUN). The
> point that this passage is conveying to John's
> recipients is the "antichrists are currently on the
> scene, they not only have appeared (so NET Bible), but
> also they are still present." John is referencing with
> the Perfect tense (even without NUN) that the
> antichrists "are present."
>
> Avoid any English nuance that conveys an exclusive
> past tense idea. Same with the Heb passage.
>
> Eddie




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