[B-Greek] Tongues and Interpretation

Kevin Groder pkg at northshorecf.org
Mon Aug 29 09:01:26 EDT 2005


Hi,

I have recently been challenged to show biblical proof of the  
practice of speaking in tongues with interpretation by the same  
person. In other words, the speaker of the tongue also interprets the  
tongue in english (or native language).

I teach this practice as appropriate based on the following:

"Now I wish that you all spoke in tongues, but even more that you  
would prophesy; and greater is one who prophesies than one who speaks  
in tongues, unless he interprets, so that the church may receive  
edifying." 1 Corinthians 14:5, NASB.

"Therefore let one who speaks in a tongue pray that he may  
interpret." 1 Corinthians 14:13, NASB.

I believe these two scriptures support this practice but I am by no  
means a greek scholar, as many of you actually are. Can any of you  
give a simple explanation as to why these scriptures (and any others  
you wish to bring out) do or do not support my case?

I am not looking to prove or disprove wether tongues are 'for today'  
but rather if Paul said that one could/should pray to interpret his/ 
her own tongues.

Thanks in advance.

Pastor Kevin Groder


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