[B-Greek] Tongues and Interpretation
Kevin Groder
pkg at northshorecf.org
Mon Aug 29 09:01:26 EDT 2005
Hi,
I have recently been challenged to show biblical proof of the
practice of speaking in tongues with interpretation by the same
person. In other words, the speaker of the tongue also interprets the
tongue in english (or native language).
I teach this practice as appropriate based on the following:
"Now I wish that you all spoke in tongues, but even more that you
would prophesy; and greater is one who prophesies than one who speaks
in tongues, unless he interprets, so that the church may receive
edifying." 1 Corinthians 14:5, NASB.
"Therefore let one who speaks in a tongue pray that he may
interpret." 1 Corinthians 14:13, NASB.
I believe these two scriptures support this practice but I am by no
means a greek scholar, as many of you actually are. Can any of you
give a simple explanation as to why these scriptures (and any others
you wish to bring out) do or do not support my case?
I am not looking to prove or disprove wether tongues are 'for today'
but rather if Paul said that one could/should pray to interpret his/
her own tongues.
Thanks in advance.
Pastor Kevin Groder
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