[B-Greek] One man one woman

cmeadows3 at verizon.net cmeadows3 at verizon.net
Thu Dec 8 17:40:37 EST 2005


It would seem that the answer depends more on context and less on the grammar.  "Husband of one wife" is certainly reasonable - and there is nothing which makes this an implausible interpretation grammatically.

Consider the company of phrases.  He is to be hospitable, temperate, etc.  The overseer is to be a morally upstanding man.  

I personally don't think it's proper to extrapolate and make this passage speak about divorce in any way.  

C Meadows

By the way - am I addressing El Guero??  :)


>From: W Ellison <el_guero2000 at yahoo.com>
>Date: Thu Dec 08 13:11:23 CST 2005
>To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>Subject: [B-Greek] One man one woman

>  I am curious about the constructions of:
>   
>  MIAS GUNAIKOS ANDRA and MIAS GUNAIKOS ANHR
>   
>  I would think that since both the term for woman and man had secondary meanings of wife and husband, that in the context of the NT church most people would hear these phrases as a "husband of one wife".
>   
>  The real reason that I am asking is that I have been told that this was preposterous.  And while, I would like to think my literal translation is preposterous, I seem to be close to the traditional interpretation.  Is there any linguistic reason to believe the traditional translation was not literal?
>   
>  I was referred to Robertson (I assume: Robertson, A Grammar of . . ., 496), and while I find refference to this possibly being an attributive genetive.  I really do not see that people in the NT era would have thought, "A man of (with) a woman."
>   
>  Wayne 'Roy' Ellison
>SWBTS
>
>
>			
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