Re: [B-Greek] PROÏDOUSA (Gal. 3:8)

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at ioa.com
Thu Dec 15 05:36:50 EST 2005


Yes, of course. the root is fEID, fOID, fID (f = Digamma in BG  
transliteration scheme). But of course the E augment appears only on  
indicative forms in any case. But I was responding to Martin's  
evident claim that the aorist of hORAW has a present sense; I think  
he was confusing IDWN with EIDWS: it is the PERFECT of this and a  
couple other verbs that bears a present sense.

On Dec 15, 2005, at 12:46 AM, Yancy Smith wrote:

>
>>> Martin Möller asked about PROÏDOUSA, in Galatians 3:8 ('PROÏDOUSA
>>> DE hH GRAFH...')
>>>
>>> It is indeed the nominative singular feminine aorist (2)
>>> participle, but of PROORAW. The masculine equivalent is in Acts
>>> 2:31 (PROÏDWN). I think I'm right in saying that this is one of
>>> those verbs that often present an aorist form but with a present
>>> meaning.
>>
>> Not so (it is true of the perfects OIDA and hESTHKA that they have a
>> present sense); the aorist participle IDWN/IDOUSA/IDON functions just
>> like any other aorist participle; recall too that, although the
>> aorist participle in narrative often -- perhaps generally --
>> indicates action prior to that of the primary verb, it really does
>> not have tense so much as aspect; so you could convey it here in Gal
>> 3:8 as "having foreseen" or "inasmuch as it foresaw".
>
> Isn't this a case of digamma deformation (I'm not sure if deformation
> is the right term) EIDON is the finite form which presupposes EϝIDON
> and when the E syllabic augment is lost with the participle form,
> since the digamma is not written the result is IDWN, IDOUSA, IDON for
> the aorist participle?
>
> Yancy Smith
> Y.W.Smith at tcu.edu
> Brite Divinity School
> Texas Christian University
>
>
>
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Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/




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