[B-Greek] John 8:58 as translation greek]

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Thu Feb 3 12:45:13 EST 2005


At 9:27 AM -0800 2/3/05, Philip Silouan Thompson wrote:
>Rolf Furuli wrote:
> > I am aware of only two instances where EHYEH is translated
> > with EGO EIMI in the LXX, namely Ex 3:14 and Hos 1:9.
> > ...That Jesus used EHYEH  in John 8:58 is therefore very
> > unlikely.
>
>I'm afraid I'm missing the reasoning that makes this *un*likely.
>
>It's accepted that John wrote or dictated his Gospel in Greek, isn't it?
>John knows EHYEH is translated EGO EIMI in the familiar passage in
>Exodus; if he wants to make the parallel clear in the Gospel passage,
>what better way than to consciously allude to the distinctive Exodus
>passage in his own translation of Christ's words?

It may be commonly held, yet the endeavor to understand Greek phrases in
GJn on the basis of Hebrew or Aramaic is common as well. What I find
disturbing about this thread is that it is highly speculative and seems to
have deviated from a concern to understand the Greek phrasing as Greek.
-- 

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/



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