[B-Greek] John 8:58 as translation greek]

Awohili at aol.com Awohili at aol.com
Thu Feb 3 13:22:36 EST 2005


 
I wonder if there would even be this discussion if, instead of  paraphrasing 
the Hebrew of Exodus 3:14, those LXX translators   would have actually 
translated it as Theodotion and Aquila did: ESOMAI  hOS ESOMAI, "I will be who I will 
be."
 
EGW EIM translates only one EHYEH of the Hebrew expression EHYEH ASHER  EHYEH 
found at Exodus 3:14.  The other EHYEH is paraphrased as  hO  WN.  Yet, even 
the LXX translates the EHYEH of Exodus 3:12 correctly as  ESOMAI, "I will be." 
 Strangely, so do most English Bible translations of  the EHYEH of Exodus 
3:12, rendering "I will be."  Why does this same Hebrew  word EHYEH demand 
translation as "I AM" at Exodus 3:14?
 
I don't see where John 8:58 has anything to do with Exodus 3:14, whether in  
Hebrew or in Greek.
 
Solomon Landers
 
In a message dated 02/03/2005 9:47:20 A.M. Pacific Standard Time,  
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu writes:

It may be  commonly held, yet the endeavor to understand Greek phrases in
GJn on the  basis of Hebrew or Aramaic is common as well. What I find
disturbing about  this thread is that it is highly speculative and seems to
have deviated  from a concern to understand the Greek phrasing as Greek.
--  







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