[B-Greek] John 8:58 as translation greek]
Awohili at aol.com
Awohili at aol.com
Thu Feb 3 13:22:36 EST 2005
I wonder if there would even be this discussion if, instead of paraphrasing
the Hebrew of Exodus 3:14, those LXX translators would have actually
translated it as Theodotion and Aquila did: ESOMAI hOS ESOMAI, "I will be who I will
be."
EGW EIM translates only one EHYEH of the Hebrew expression EHYEH ASHER EHYEH
found at Exodus 3:14. The other EHYEH is paraphrased as hO WN. Yet, even
the LXX translates the EHYEH of Exodus 3:12 correctly as ESOMAI, "I will be."
Strangely, so do most English Bible translations of the EHYEH of Exodus
3:12, rendering "I will be." Why does this same Hebrew word EHYEH demand
translation as "I AM" at Exodus 3:14?
I don't see where John 8:58 has anything to do with Exodus 3:14, whether in
Hebrew or in Greek.
Solomon Landers
In a message dated 02/03/2005 9:47:20 A.M. Pacific Standard Time,
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu writes:
It may be commonly held, yet the endeavor to understand Greek phrases in
GJn on the basis of Hebrew or Aramaic is common as well. What I find
disturbing about this thread is that it is highly speculative and seems to
have deviated from a concern to understand the Greek phrasing as Greek.
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