[B-Greek] John 8:58

anotherpaul anotherpaul at webintellects.net
Sat Feb 5 17:44:52 EST 2005


In what way does the grammar of John 8:58 indicate that there is any "divine
theological connection" in the use of ego eimi, in this or any verse? It
appears that either "I am" or "I have been" or "I existed", etc, do not in
and of themselves provide any divine theological connection. They
grammatically refer to existence.

 

<<It should have been obvious that the example from John 9:9 was not
intented to have any divine theological connection to the EGW EIMI of John
8:58. It was soley an illustration for the argument that when a sentence
structure in which the copulative verb is used without an object or
complement it is then "absolute" and to be understood in the simple present
tense.>> 

 




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