THREAD CLOSED: [B-Greek] John 8:58

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Sat Feb 5 19:09:24 EST 2005


Let's call a halt to this go-round on this verse--now,  please!

At 2:44 PM -0800 2/5/05, anotherpaul wrote:
>In what way does the grammar of John 8:58 indicate that there is any "divine
>theological connection" in the use of ego eimi, in this or any verse? It
>appears that either "I am" or "I have been" or "I existed", etc, do not in
>and of themselves provide any divine theological connection. They
>grammatically refer to existence.
>
>
>
><<It should have been obvious that the example from John 9:9 was not
>intented to have any divine theological connection to the EGW EIMI of John
>8:58. It was soley an illustration for the argument that when a sentence
>structure in which the copulative verb is used without an object or
>complement it is then "absolute" and to be understood in the simple present
>tense.>>
-- 

Carl W. Conrad
Co-Chair, B-Greek List
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/



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