[B-Greek] re "I AM"
T HILL
terry_sda at blueyonder.co.uk
Sun Feb 6 02:09:29 EST 2005
Re - "I AM"
Hi all
As I have said before in my post on 'begotten' I am new to this list. It is because of this that I am not aware of all that has been said on the topic of the "I AM" so I apologise if I am repeating that which has already been said by someone.
I am only a lay person who has been studying the trinity doctrine for a number of years so that I could write a paper on it . This paper was simply meant for my benefit (I am a great believer in the adage that if someone understands something they can write it down) and so that I could share my studies with those who would like to know about what I found. It is because I am only a layperson that I am completely dependant upon those scholars who have gone before me who have done such a great work on this much written about topic and those such as yourselves on this list who have such a grasp on the Greek (and maybe Hebrew) language.
To save me a great deal of typing, I hope that you do not mind me sharing with you the following thoughts as I have typed them in my paper. Please feel free to let me know if you think that I have misunderstood something. I would really appreciate it. As I have said, these are only the conclusions of a layperson so if I am wrong then I want to know. I hope that this will compliment the wealth of knowledge that has already been expressed on the list on this topic.
I have written on the "I AM"
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The Old Testament I AM' (Jehovah)
When Moses turned aside to take a look at the 'burning bush' (because it was burning but not consumed), God introduced Himself (to Moses) as "the God of thy father, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob" (see Exodus 3:6). We can see from this that God did not leave it to the imagination of Moses to determine who it was that was speaking to him.
God then told Moses that He (God) had chosen him (Moses) to bring the children of Israel out from their Egyptian bondage. This is when Moses asked God what name he should say when they (the children of Israel) asked who had sent him. The Scriptures then record
"And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you. Exodus 3:14
God did not say to Moses that he was simply to say that the God of their Fathers or the God of Abraham or the God of Isaac or the God of Jacob that had sent him but the "I AM".
According to Strong's concordance, this expression "I AM" (Heb. 'hayah') means "to be or to come to be (come to pass or become). In the latter sense, it is used extensively. For examples of its usage see Genesis 2:7 (became), 3:22 (become), 4:14 (come, as in 'come to pass'), Genesis 11:3 (had), Genesis 13:3 (been) and Genesis 15:1 (came) etc.
Very interesting (and very significant) to note is that instead of the words "I AM THAT I AM", some Bibles have "I will be what I will be", either that they say that the latter interpretation is a valid alternative. Take for example the 'Complete Jewish Bible'. It says in its translation of Exodus 3:14
"God said to Moshe, "Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh [I am/will be what I am/will be]," and added, "Here is what to say to the people of Isra'el: 'Ehyeh [I Am or I Will Be] has sent me to you.'" Exodus 3:14 (Complete Jewish Bible, copyright © 1998 by David H. Stern. Published by Jewish New Testament Publications, Inc. www.messianicjewish.net/jntp. Distributed by Messianic Jewish Resources. www.messianicjewish.net. All rights reserved. Used by permission.)
Here we can see that this Jewish translation of the Scriptures uses (in this verse) the Hebrew term 'Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh' and puts in parenthesis as an alternative reading "I am/will be what I am/will be" (note particularly here the consonants 'HYH').
This recent Jewish translation is very interesting because in the Miles Coverdale translation (the very first printed English translation of the complete Bible) it say in 16th century English language
"God saide vnto Moses: I wyl be what I wyll be. And he sayde: Thus shalt thou saye vnto ye children of Israel: I wyl he hath sent me vnto you." Exodus 3:14 Miles Coverdale translation.
In a 21st century English rendering of this verse we would say
"God said unto Moses: I will be what I will be. And he said: thus shalt thou say unto the children if Israel: I will he hath sent me unto you."
Another interesting point is that whilst the New International Version (which is purported to have used the best manuscripts) has in Exodus 3:14 "I am that I am", the footnote for that verse says
"or I will be what I will be" (footnote, Exodus 3:14 New International Version)
A similar footnote to this same verse is also found in the New English Bible. This footnote says
"I am . I am or I will be what I will be" Footnote to Exodus 3:14 New English Bible"
I have found in my studies that as an alternative to "I AM THAT I AM", there are many commentaries and lexicons that give the rendering "I will be what I will be".
One such commentary is the 1919 Peake's commentary that has over 60 contributors. These were such as professors of Bible languages and professors of Biblical exegesis etc. This commentary says with reference to Exodus 3:14
"I will be that I will be" is supported by Robertson Smith, Davidson, Driver, M'Neile, and others (the meaning will be more clearly conveyed to the English reader by the translation, "I will be what I will be." - A.S.P.) It brings out the implications both of the root and tense of the verb hayah. The root denotes rather becoming than being, and the tense (imperfect) marks uncompleted process or activity." (Rev George Harford, M.A. Hon. Canon of Liverpool, Peake's Commentary on the Bible, 1919 page 172)
Note again here the consonants HYH. Note also that the commentary says that the root of hayah denotes 'becoming' more so than 'being' and the imperfect tense denotes "uncompleted process or activity".
In another book on Old Testament theology, I found a statement that I also believe is very interesting. It says
"First let us examine the words that follow from Moses' request for the name of the God who has spoken to him. The Hebrew for those capitalised words is 'EHYEH 'ASHER 'EHYEH. The verbal form of 'EYEH' is the third person singular masculine imperfect of the verb 'HAYAH'. This verb 'HAYAH' does not mean 'to be'. It is more nearly understood by the verb 'to become' in English . though we cannot totally exclude the idea of 'being'." (George A. F. Knight, 'A Christian Theology of the Old Testament" pages 40-41, 'God known in His Self-Revelation')
This same author later says
"The word 'EHYEH' is in this 'imperfect' form of the verb. 'EHYEH' is just as rightly translated by our future tense as by our present tense. Therefore it is just as correct to translate it by 'I shall become what I shall become', as by the phrase 'I am becoming what I am becoming'." (Ibid)
Notice here that this name of God is spoken of in connection with His self-revelation through His divine presence. This is what made the bush burn without being consumed. It was the eternal presence of deity.
Notice in both these previous statements that the writers said that the words spoken by God ("I am what I am" or "I will be what I will be") is in the 'imperfect tense' (imperfect form of the verb).
The Hebrew language is very 'verb orientated'. Much importance is placed on the understanding of their usages. Unlike Greek (or English) though, verbs are not considered as past, present or future tenses but rather perfect or imperfect (a complete or incomplete action).
The imperfect tense (as in is written "I am that I am" or "I will be what I will be") appears to denote that which is not yet complete but is still ongoing. Thus it can be said that God is saying to Moses, "I am becoming what I am becoming" meaning that through the dynamism of His own divine presence, God is revealing Himself (self-revelation).
By saying to Moses "I am the God of thy father, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob" (see Exodus 3:6), God had already identified Himself to Moses. Therefore, when Moses asked God for the name of the one who had sent him, he (Moses) was not asking God who He was but rather it seems, what He was.
Moses actually asked God "Behold, when I come unto the children of Israel, and shall say unto them, The God of your fathers hath sent me unto you; and they shall say to me, What is his name? what shall I say unto them? (see Exodus 3:13)
Moses asked God what name (when he was asked) should he say was the God of their fathers. The Hebrew word used here is transliterated 'shem' and is the common word for 'name' (see Genesis 2:11, 20, 3:20, 11:20 etc).
We shall see later that to the Hebrews of Bible times, the name of a person (or place) often had great significance. This name meant more in relation to a person's (or a place/object's) character, being, mission, or origins etc., rather than to just identity by outward appearance.
A comment that was made regarding this in the 1929 Abingdon Bible commentary (with 66 contributors such as Peake's commentary) said
"The words I am that I am are evidently intended as an interpretation of the name "Jehovah" which was pronounced in Hebrew Yahweh. According to the popular etymology of this passage, the Hebrew word was understood to be the third person singular masculine of the imperfect tense of the verb "to be" in its older form (found in a few instances in the Hebrew text and common in Aramaic), meaning "He is", " or "He will be"; or, if regarded as derived from the causative stem of the verb, "He causes to be." (J. F. McLaughlin, B.D. D.D. Dean and Professor of Old Testament Exegesis and Literature, Faculty of Theology, Professor of Oriental Languages and Literature, Faculty of Arts, Victoria University, Toronto. The Abingdon Bible Commentary 1929 page 256)
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Any thoughts would be very much appreciated.
Thanks
Terry Hill
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