[B-Greek] John 8:58

Lew Osborne osbo at hn.ozemail.com.au
Sun Feb 6 02:32:26 EST 2005


It has been interesting to note the various comments on John 8:58. 
 
Exodus 3:14 in the Hebrew is in the 1st person singular Qal form, verb 'to
be' imperfect tense.(expressed as the 'future tense'). Every instance that I
can find where this form is used is in the future or imperfect tense.
 
It would appear that the phrase "I am" in Exodus 3:14 is an incorrect
translation.
 
Putting theology and doctrine aside, does this then prohibit the connecting
of the phrase 'I am' as it is shown in the KJV of Exodus 3:14 to John 5:58? 
 
Lew Osborne
 
 

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