[B-Greek] Re: Purpose Clause

Muzi Mbutho MBTMUZ001 at mail.uct.ac.za
Fri Feb 25 07:21:07 EST 2005



Beata Urbanek wrote:
> 
> There's an example of hINA clause used as result-clause in John 9:2:
> RABBI TIS hHMARTEN hOUTOS H hOI GONEIS AUTOU hINA TYFLOS GENNHQH
> and surely the "result" was manifested.
> 
> Genarally, I think you are being more a theologian than a B-Greeker here.
> 
> Beata Urbanek
> 
> PS. Could we possibly have your full name?

I have added my full name in my account. I hope it now appears. I'll
also add at the bottom.

I didn't deny that results are manifested. My question is simply: Is the
realisation (actuality) of result important or not important? Should we
take it as having been fulfilled even though we don't see it? This does
not deny that there are instances where the result is manifested. So far
my question has not been fully answered. By the way it is help that I'm
looking for, as I showed in my first post that there Greek teachers seem
to say different things according to my understanding. I'm not debating. 

Here again are the issues that confuse me (refer back to my first post):

Collins seems to that the result is realised. Theologically I agree with
him as far as Gal 2:16 is concerned. However, grammatically I'm still
confused.

Burton seems to say that the result is not realised.

Keating seems to say that the realisation of result is not important
(a). I understand (d) as saying that whether or not we see the result we
should take it as having been fulfilled.

Muzi Mbutho



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