[B-Greek] 1 Peter 1:15
Kevin Riley
klriley at alphalink.com.au
Mon Jan 10 01:12:13 EST 2005
Reading the posts on this issue, I wonder how many views of the function of
the passive and/or middle are represented in this group. Why is the
assumption made that the passive functions in the same way as the English
passive so that one is obliged to translate one by the other? There are
languages where anything up to 90% of passives must be translated into
English as active verbs [or sometimes not even as verbs] in order to convey
the same meaning - why assume Greek is the only language that is 100%
consistent with English on this? How is the meaning of the middle voice
rendered in modern Greek - by the passive or the active - or is it lost? If
the function of the passive [or middle] is not represented in English by the
passive voice, why translate it as if it were? Does Greek have a passive
impersonal construction?
Kevin Riley
>-----Original Message-----
>From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
>[mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org]On Behalf Of
>kgraham0938 at comcast.net
>
>@Steve:
>
>
>You wrote
>
>"So the burden, as I said in my last post, is on you to prove that
>GENHQHTW in Mt 26.42 CANNOT be sensibly construed as middle"
>
>Response: I don't see how GENHQHTW can be seen as a middle,
>because that would mean that God's will is being done to himself,
>that would make no sense.
>
>Jesus is praying that his will be carried out by himself. That he
>would be able to perform the Father's will.
>
>--
>Kelton Graham
>KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net
>
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