[B-Greek] Interrogative Imperatives?

moon at sogang.ac.kr moon at sogang.ac.kr
Sat Jun 4 22:22:42 EDT 2005






  
--- Original Message ---
>From    : 
 "Carl W. Conrad"<cwconrad at ioa.com>
To      : 
 "moon at sogang.ac.kr"<moon at sogang.ac.kr>
Date    : 
 2005/06/05 ÀÏ¿äÀÏ ¿ÀÀü 8:40:11
Subject : 
 Re: [B-Greek] Interrogative Imperatives?


On Jun 4, 2005, at 7:32 PM, moon at sogang.ac.kr wrote:



> Hi, George, what do you think of the following obsevation of Smyth

> 1838,  p. 409:

>

>

>  

>

>

> The Third person may be used in questions:

>

>

>  OUKOUN KEISQW TAUTA.

>

>  Shall these points

> be established? P.L. 820 e,

>

>

>  

>

>

> I wonder if there are some more examples.



I'll let George answer for himself, but for my own part, I would not  

describe KEISQW itself as "interrogative" in the above instance; it

seems to me that OUKOUN is functioning here like a "N'est-ce pas" or  

a "Nicht wahr? or a "Non e vero?", so that the sentence,

OUKOUN KEISQW TAUTA bears the sense "Those points should be settled  

(agreed upon), don't you think?"


  
 

  
[Moon] In the sentence in question,  Smyth writes OUKOUN with 
  circumflex accent on OUN,  You seem to assume  the latter.

  
Let me quote Denniston:

  
 It is usually agreed that the ancient grammarians are right in 
  saying

  
 that in OUKKOUN (with accent on OUK) the predominant

  
 element is OUK, in OUKOUN (with circumflex accent on OUN), OUN.

  
 

  
In the latter case, Denniston paraphrases it with "therefore, then,

  
now, again". This OUKOUN can occur with OU: OUKOUN OU, 
  OUKOUN..... OU, expecting a negative anwswer. OUKOUN OUK AN...

  
(see Denniston p. 435) 

  
 

  
Denniston also says that OUKOUN (with accent on OUK) 

  
is the livelier interrogative, while OUKOU (with accent on OUN)

  
is the quieter interrogative. He indicates that the accentuation of

  
OUKOUN in our MSS are not to be trusted.

  
 

  
In relation to our topic, he mentions (p. 406):

  
 

  
 (a) OUKOUN with the imperative. Phdr.274B OUKOUN TO MEN... IKANWS 
  ECETW. 278B OUKOUN HDH PEPAISQW  METRIWS HMIN

  
TA PERI LOGWN.

  
 

  
---------------------

  
 

  
But I had the impression, Moon, that you were raising the question  

with regard to some GNT text that you haven't mentioned? Just

what DID you have in mind in raising the question about interrogative  

imperatives?


  
=>

  
[Moon] I wanted to see if the 3rd person imperative form can be used as a 
  rhetorical question in 1 Cor 14:34:

  
  hAI GUNAIKES EN TAIS EKKLHSIAS SIAGATWSAN.

  
 

  
So, I wanted to know the following paraphrase of 14:34-36

  
 would make sense:

  
 

  
 Must the women be silent in the churches?

  
 For it is not permitted for them to speak. But 

  
 must they be subordinated as the law also says?

  
 If they want to learn something, must they ask 

  
 to their husbands at home?  For it is shameful

  
 for women to speak in church.

  
 Or rather (H), did the word of God come upon

  
 you, or did it reach you only?

  
 

  
 

  
 Sincerely

  
Moon Jung

  
Sogang Univ, Seoul, Korea

rl W. Conrad

Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)

1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243

cwconrad2 at mac.com

WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/












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