[B-Greek] Re: 1 Cor. 14:8 - word order, BDF & Turner

jmtait jmtait at wirhoose.co.uk
Sun Jun 5 15:56:35 EDT 2005


Randall (quoting Chet) wrote:

 > Were the targums not as widely
read as the LXX or the Hebrew OT text?>

** Another assumption of much NT scholarship that turns out to be
somewhere between 'groundless' to 'misleading'.

There seem to be very many different opinions floating around about the 
status of Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek in Palestine at the time of Christ. 
Does this mean that, in fact, very little is known about this?

For example, I've come across the view that, at this time, the Targums were 
almost exclusively oral - is this true? (Were written Targums not actually 
forbidden at one time?) Does the view that literacy was low at this period 
(some scholars now seem to simply assume that Jesus would have been 
illiterate) have a bearing on this? (BTW - what I haven't heard anyone 
mention is the probability that, in some semi-literate societies, some, 
perhaps many, people may be able to read but not write.)

With regard to the Semitic influence on NT Greek being Hebraic rather than 
Aramaic, does anyone know whether the Aramaic of Palestine was itself 
influenced by Hebrew? This wouldn't be unusual in a situation where one 
language replaces another, would it?

John M. Tait.


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