[B-Greek] Re: 1 Cor. 14:8 - word order, BDF & Turner

Jim West jwest at highland.net
Sun Jun 5 16:19:55 EDT 2005



jmtait wrote:

>  (BTW - what I haven't heard anyone mention is the probability that, 
> in some semi-literate societies, some, perhaps many, people may be 
> able to read but not write.)


In fact John P. Meier makes exactly that claim in the first volumeon the 
historical Jesus, "A Marginal Jew".

>
> With regard to the Semitic influence on NT Greek being Hebraic rather 
> than Aramaic, does anyone know whether the Aramaic of Palestine was 
> itself influenced by Hebrew? This wouldn't be unusual in a situation 
> where one language replaces another, would it?


There most certainly would ahve been influence in both directions, as 
happens in any bi-lingual society.  Matthew Black makes this fairly clear.

Best,

Jim

-- 
Jim West

Biblical Studies Resources -  http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
Biblical Theology Weblog -  http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com




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