[B-Greek] Re: 1 Cor. 14:8 - word order, BDF & Turner
Jim West
jwest at highland.net
Sun Jun 5 16:19:55 EDT 2005
jmtait wrote:
> (BTW - what I haven't heard anyone mention is the probability that,
> in some semi-literate societies, some, perhaps many, people may be
> able to read but not write.)
In fact John P. Meier makes exactly that claim in the first volumeon the
historical Jesus, "A Marginal Jew".
>
> With regard to the Semitic influence on NT Greek being Hebraic rather
> than Aramaic, does anyone know whether the Aramaic of Palestine was
> itself influenced by Hebrew? This wouldn't be unusual in a situation
> where one language replaces another, would it?
There most certainly would ahve been influence in both directions, as
happens in any bi-lingual society. Matthew Black makes this fairly clear.
Best,
Jim
--
Jim West
Biblical Studies Resources - http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
Biblical Theology Weblog - http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com
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