[B-Greek] rom 8:17
nicholas runecrow
runecrow at hotmail.com
Sun Jun 5 16:49:22 EDT 2005
"Carl has complained (well, I don't know that "complained" is quite the
correct word) that some such as Dan Wallace have overly distinguished
various usages of the cases. Perhaps your problem is that you take these
distinctions too seriously. Yes, we can distinguish various usages for
the genitive (please note the spelling), but to the Greek they would all
have been simply genitive.
george
gfsomsel"
>>>
Thanks for the reply George. I am basically wondering if there is something
in the Greek construct that pushes for two different distinctions of the
genItives. When you say "to the Greek, they would all have been simply
genitive" you seem to be echoing what I've said- that there really wouldn't
be a reason to translate these two cases with different English words.
This is why I am trying to determine why virtually all English translations
do make this distinction between the two genitives. I am certainly not at
the level of knowledge of Greek that most translators have attained, and so
I am left wondering what they are seeing that I am not to cause such a
distinction.
If I am understanding the thrust of your reply, you are saying that there is
no reason for the use of differing English translations?
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