[B-Greek] EXESTAKENAI in Acts 8:11: transitive or intransitive?
Randy Leedy
Rleedy at bju.edu
Wed Mar 9 16:14:55 EST 2005
I may well be mistaken in this notion, but it seems to me that the
relatively mechanical nature of my question-- is the verb transitive or
intransitive?--puts it into an entirely different category than most
interpretive questions. There's not much interpretive complexity here,
no opportunity for allegory or that sort of thing, nothing theological
at stake--just a simple question of grammatical mechanics. And I'm not
sure why a Medieval Greek's sense that the verb can be transitive should
be thrown out as irrelevant just because of this time period. Do
Medievals typically manifest incompentence on the grammatical mechanics
of Koine?
Randy Leedy
>>> Jim West <jwest at highland.net> 03/09/05 4:04 PM >>>
Randy Leedy wrote:
>Thanks to Stephen Carlson and Iver Larsen for helpful input. The
>quotations from the medieval sources seem particularly helpful toward
>establishing the legitimacy of a transitive sense. And I appreciate
>seeing the REB's rendering.
>
As relevent as medieval texts may be for understanding the growth and
development of the language to its present form, they are totally
irrelevent for interpretation of the New Testament documents. It is,
it
seems to me, terribly perilous to read NT texts in that anachronistic
fashion.
Best,
Jim
--
Jim West
Biblical Studies Resources - http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
Biblical Theology Weblog - http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com
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