[B-Greek] EXESTAKENAI in Acts 8:11: transitive or intransitive?

Jim West jwest at highland.net
Wed Mar 9 16:43:17 EST 2005



Randy Leedy wrote:

>And I'm not
>sure why a Medieval Greek's sense that the verb can be transitive should
>be thrown out as irrelevant just because of this time period. Do
>Medievals typically manifest incompentence on the grammatical mechanics
>of Koine?
>
The point is that medieval greek texts are not Koine greek texts.  To 
equate the grammar of the two is to equate modern American English 
grammar with Shakesperean grammar.

Jim

-- 
Jim West

Biblical Studies Resources -  http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
Biblical Theology Weblog -  http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com





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