[B-Greek] Strong's Definitions

Jeffrey B. Gibson jgibson000 at comcast.net
Fri Mar 25 21:44:26 EST 2005


 

Theodore Mann wrote:

> I hope I'm not out of line with this question.  Where did Dr. Strong
> acquire the definitions for his commentary?  Are they his, or did he get
> them elsewhere?

If you mean his concordance, he took them from -- as he himself tells us in
the preface -- from the words used by the KJV translators for the particular
Greek and Hebrew terms that Strong wanted to "define".  So the "definitions"
are not definitions at all.  They are "equivalencies"   -- and, NB.
Elizabethan, not modern,  English equivalencies, and therefore not only
suffer because many of them, when not guesses, are based on very limited
linguistic data, but because what the English terms used meant in 1611 is
often not what they now mean to us.

Do NOT use Strong's Dictionary as a Greek lexicon.  It's worthless.

Jeffrey
--

Jeffrey B. Gibson, D.Phil. (Oxon.)

1500 W. Pratt Blvd. #1
Chicago, IL 60626

jgibson000 at comcast.net
 




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