[B-Greek] Grandville sharp and Ha Elohim

kgraham0938 at comcast.net kgraham0938 at comcast.net
Sat Mar 26 09:47:49 EST 2005


That is the question, is Qeos in Titus 2:13 a proper noun??  Or is it just a common noun.  

I was saying that normally Qeos is not thought of as a proper noun, so most people use Titus 2:13 as a verse that justifies the deity of Christ.  [including myself].

But, when I came across that article in Walke and O' Conner, I began to think that maybe Qeos in Titus 2:13 is a proper noun, since it is based off of ha' Elohim and maybe Titus 2:13 does not apply to Grandville rule.

I was wondering what does everyone else think of Qeos in Titus 2:13.

--
Kelton Graham 
KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net

-------------- Original message -------------- 

> ___________________ 
> 
> You didn't finish your thought: "Because normally we don't think of hO 
> Qeos as 
> a proper noun" -- what's the rest of the sentence? What happens because 
> we don't normally think of hO QEOS as a proper noun? 
> 
> Regarding Granville Sharp and his rule: It specifically excludes proper 
> names so that it would then be inapplicable to Tit 2.13. 
> 
> 
> 
> george 
> gfsomsel 
> ___________ 


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