[B-Greek] Grandville sharp and Ha Elohim
kgraham0938 at comcast.net
kgraham0938 at comcast.net
Sat Mar 26 09:47:49 EST 2005
That is the question, is Qeos in Titus 2:13 a proper noun?? Or is it just a common noun.
I was saying that normally Qeos is not thought of as a proper noun, so most people use Titus 2:13 as a verse that justifies the deity of Christ. [including myself].
But, when I came across that article in Walke and O' Conner, I began to think that maybe Qeos in Titus 2:13 is a proper noun, since it is based off of ha' Elohim and maybe Titus 2:13 does not apply to Grandville rule.
I was wondering what does everyone else think of Qeos in Titus 2:13.
--
Kelton Graham
KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net
-------------- Original message --------------
> ___________________
>
> You didn't finish your thought: "Because normally we don't think of hO
> Qeos as
> a proper noun" -- what's the rest of the sentence? What happens because
> we don't normally think of hO QEOS as a proper noun?
>
> Regarding Granville Sharp and his rule: It specifically excludes proper
> names so that it would then be inapplicable to Tit 2.13.
>
>
>
> george
> gfsomsel
> ___________
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