[B-Greek] Matt 28:5/Mk 16:6 and Perf Pass Ptc
Eric Weiss
papaweiss1 at yahoo.com
Sun Mar 27 22:42:51 EST 2005
Matt. 28:5 - OIDA GAR hOTI IHSOUN TON ESTAURWMENON ZHTEITE
Mark 16:6 - IHSOUN ZHTEITE TON NAZARHNON TON ESTAURWMENON
Why is the perfect passive participle used here, rather than the aorist participle (i.e.,
STAURWQENTA) ? The only other instances of ESTAURWMENON in the NT are I Cor. 1:23,
2:2, and Gal. 3:1, for which Paul's used the perfect, likely for theologically and kerygmatically
significant reasons, IMO.
While most translations render it as an aorist (i.e., "who was crucified"), the NASB translates
Matt. 28:5 and Mark 16:6 as "who has been crucified," which does reflect the perfect.
Interestingly, the New American Bible (NAB) translates them as "Jesus the crucified." That's
almost as if it's a title - i.e., Jesus is "the crucified one"; at least that's the way the verse
struck me when I read Matt. 28:5 in Greek today and first noticed this. Am I reading too much
into the use of the pf pass ptc here, or is the NAB perhaps more correct or more
enlightened/enlightening than others in its rendering of the phrase as "the crucified one"?
Eric S. Weiss
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