[B-Greek] Matt 28:5/Mk 16:6 and Perf Pass Ptc
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Mon Mar 28 06:41:29 EST 2005
At 7:42 PM -0800 3/27/05, Eric Weiss wrote:
>Matt. 28:5 - OIDA GAR hOTI IHSOUN TON ESTAURWMENON ZHTEITE
>Mark 16:6 - IHSOUN ZHTEITE TON NAZARHNON TON ESTAURWMENON
>
>Why is the perfect passive participle used here, rather than the aorist
>participle (i.e.,
>STAURWQENTA) ? The only other instances of ESTAURWMENON in the NT are I
>Cor. 1:23,
>2:2, and Gal. 3:1, for which Paul's used the perfect, likely for
>theologically and kerygmatically
>significant reasons, IMO.
>
>While most translations render it as an aorist (i.e., "who was
>crucified"), the NASB translates
>Matt. 28:5 and Mark 16:6 as "who has been crucified," which does reflect
>the perfect.
>Interestingly, the New American Bible (NAB) translates them as "Jesus the
>crucified." That's
>almost as if it's a title - i.e., Jesus is "the crucified one"; at least
>that's the way the verse
>struck me when I read Matt. 28:5 in Greek today and first noticed this. Am
>I reading too much
>into the use of the pf pass ptc here, or is the NAB perhaps more correct
>or more
>enlightened/enlightening than others in its rendering of the phrase as
>"the crucified one"?
FWIW, I believe that the perfect and aorist are not very clearly
differentiated in Hellenistic Greek and are often used interchangeably.
Secondly, with regard to the "title," there's no formal distinction between
an epithet/title and any other attributive marked by the article--it's very
much like an appositive noun. Whether one wants to call a particular
instance an epithet/title may be a matter of its relative frequency. But
it's worth looking more closely at the other texts you mentioned:
1 Cor 1:23 hHMEIS DE KHRUSSOMEN CRISTON ESTAURWMENON, IOUDAIOIS MEN
SKANDALON, EQNESIN DE MWRIAN ...
1 COR 2:2 OU GAR EKRINA TI EIDENAI EN hUMIN EI MH IHSOUN CRISTON KAI TOUTON
ESTAURWMENON
GAL 3:1 W ANOHTOI GALATAI, TI hUMAS EBASKANEN, hOIS KAT' OFQALMOUS IHSOUS
CRISTOS PROEGRAFH ESTAURWMENOS.
Certainly there are no instances of an aorist form of this verb in the
passive participle referring to Jesus (or anyone else)--STAURWQEIS.
Although I realize that some hold to Matthean priority, but for those who
accept Marcan priority, this formulation in Mk 16:6 looks like an instance
of the linkage supposed by some to exist between Mark's interpretative
interests and those of Paul. But that's speculative and this is not the
forum for such a discussion.
--
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/
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