[B-Greek] Re: Col 3:18
Jim West
jwest at highland.net
Thu Mar 31 14:45:54 EST 2005
Carl noted,
./ BDF has a note on this at §358: "The imperfect (without AN) in
expressions of necessity, duty, possibility etc. denotes in classical
something which is or was actually necessary, etc., but which does not
or did not take place (cf. Latin). ... . (2) this usage is expanded in
some cases in the NT where classical would more likely have used the
present indicative for an assertion about present time (so that CRH,
PROSHKEI etc. contain an unjunction): E 5:4 may e so understood hA OUK
ANHKEN (DE al. TA OUK ANHKONTA) 'what is (really) not proper (but yet
happens), cf. v. 3 KAQWS PREPEI." In note 2 Col 3:18 is given as an
instance of this second usage. /
I am not sure what Carl is trying to emphasize here- is he saying
/*'what is (really) not proper (but yet happens),*/ is the case in Col
3:18 (on analogy from Eph 5:4)? How can it be improper, from the
perspective of the author of Colossians, to say that "wives should be
subject to their husbands (even though this is not really proper but it
happens anyway)? That hardly seems a correct exegetical movement.
BDF point out in Secs 325 and 327 that the imperfect is used as an
iterative imperfect (it happened often but was never completely carried
out); and to portray the manner of the action (i.e., a past action is
represented as being in progress). So far as I can tell, this is the
natural, sensible and intelligible use the imperfect is put to in Col 3:18.
--
Jim West
Biblical Studies Resources - http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
Biblical Theology Weblog - http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com
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