[B-Greek] Re: Col 3:18

Jim West jwest at highland.net
Thu Mar 31 14:45:54 EST 2005


Carl noted,

./ BDF has a note on this at §358: "The imperfect (without AN) in 
expressions of necessity, duty, possibility etc. denotes in classical 
something which is or was actually necessary, etc., but which does not 
or did not take place (cf. Latin). ... . (2) this usage is expanded in 
some cases in the NT where classical would more likely have used the 
present indicative for an assertion about present time (so that CRH, 
PROSHKEI etc. contain an unjunction): E 5:4 may e so understood hA OUK 
ANHKEN (DE al. TA OUK ANHKONTA) 'what is (really) not proper (but yet 
happens), cf. v. 3 KAQWS PREPEI." In note 2 Col 3:18 is given as an 
instance of this second usage. /


I am not sure what Carl is trying to emphasize here- is he saying 
/*'what is (really) not proper (but yet happens),*/ is the case in Col 
3:18 (on analogy from Eph 5:4)?  How can it be improper, from the 
perspective of the author of Colossians, to say that "wives should be 
subject to their husbands (even though this is not really proper but it 
happens anyway)?  That hardly seems a correct exegetical movement.

BDF point out in Secs 325 and 327 that the imperfect is used as an 
iterative imperfect (it happened often but was never completely carried 
out); and to portray the manner of the action (i.e., a past action is 
represented as being in progress).  So far as I can tell, this is the 
natural, sensible and intelligible use the imperfect is put to in Col 3:18.

-- 
Jim West

Biblical Studies Resources -  http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
Biblical Theology Weblog -  http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com




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