[B-Greek] TELOS in Romans 10:4?
Jon Rumble
jon.rumble at gmail.com
Tue Nov 8 23:59:20 EST 2005
Hey,
One thing to add to that might be that the two meanings are not
necessarily mutually exclusive and I suspect that Paul may have meant
both.
It could well be that Christ is the goal/purpose of the law in that he
is it's ultimate fulfillment and the means by which we attain
righteousness (meaning 1). And having achieved righteousness on our
behalf we are no longer subject to the law (meaning 2).
Jon Rumble
On 11/9/05, Wayne Leman <wayne_leman at sil.org> wrote:
> Clayton, it's a good question, one for which I would like the answer also.
> As you probably already know, TELOS, according to the lexicons, can mean
> either. There is nothing in the immediate context of this verse which
> definitively points us more toward one or another. Most English versions
> simply translate TELOS here literally as "end," which doesn't begs the
> question you are asking.
>
> Ultimately, an answer (maybe not *the* answer) is probably going to depend
> on one's hermeneutics, one's view of the meaning of TELOS or other Greek
> collocating with NOMOS elsewhere (cf. Matt. 5:17), and one's theology and
> understanding of the relationship of NOMOS to PISTIS. I suspect that the
> ultimate answer is beyond the constraints of this particular discussion
> list.
>
> Wayne
> ----
> Wayne Leman
> Better Bibles Blog:
> http://englishbibles.blogspot.com
>
> > My question is
> > What is the meaning of TELOS in Romans 10:4?
> >
> > Does TELOS mean end as final termination with no further existence of
> > the Law
> > Or
> > Does TELOS mean end as a goal or purpose and the Law still continues?
>
> ---
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