[B-Greek] Philo use the definite article

Octavio Rodriguez octaviors at gmail.com
Tue Oct 4 16:27:26 EDT 2005


I have two questions about the Greek in this passage of Philo of Alexandria.
Excuse i don´t have the greek text of this , if anybody have this , please
send me , that will help me in my studies
 Philo (On Dreams book 1,39) said:
 "... But it is not right for the man who anchors on the hope of the
alliance of God to crouch and tremble, to whom God says, "I am the God who
was seen by thee in the place of God." A very glorious boast for the soul,
that God should think fit to appear to and to converse with it. And do not
pass by what is here said, but examine it accurately, and see whether there
are really two Gods. For it is said: "I am the God who was seen by thee;"
not in my place, but in the place of God, as if he meant of some other God.
What then ought we to say? There is one true God only: but they who are
called Gods, by an abuse of language, are numerous; on which account the
holy scripture on the present occasion indicates that it is the true God
that is meant by the use of the article, the expression being, "I am the God
(ho Theos);" but when the word is used incorrectly, it is put without the
article, the expression being, "He who was seen by thee in the place," not
of the God (tou Theou), but simply "of God" (Theou); ..."
 question1 : I don´t find in the Bible the text "I am the God who was seen
by thee in the place of God" .
 qestion 2: I don´t understand how the Greek "ho theos" is better than
"theos" in linguistic sense.
 Is "ho theos" equal to "very God" in Greek, or simply "the God" ?.
 Best Regards
Octavio Rodriguez



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