[B-Greek] translation of Mark 5:7

Daveat168 at aol.com Daveat168 at aol.com
Wed Oct 26 20:21:24 EDT 2005


<< KAI KRACAS FWNH MEGALH LEGEI ...
And crying-out to-sound great he-says ...

TI ___ EMOI KAI SOI IHSOU UIE TOU QEOU TOU UYISTOU
What ... to-me and to-you Jesus son of-the most-high God!
he goes on to say ... I implore you, by God, don't torture me!

My question is, how to translate the first part of what the demoniac says to
Jesus.

Are the words ... TI ___ EMOI KAI SOI ... a colloquial expression?
Many bibles translate ... TI ___ EMOI KAI SOI ... as "What have I to do with
you"
To me, I think this paraphrase is not accurate.

It seems to me that the expession ... TI EMOI KAI SOI ... is missing a verb
but that the verb is implied and supposedly obvious.

Is this a text ellipsis? - I don't think so.
Was the text purposely written this way? - I think it was.
If I am correct, what would be a good candidate for the missing verb?

Dan Gleason

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Dear Friend,
   I have been working on the Latin for my project, and Like you, I have discovered that verbs are frequently omitted.  Usually the omitted verb is either obvious from context, or a form of 'esse' = 'to be', often in the impersonal form, 'there is/are/was/were'.
If we take your puzzling phrase, and insert the impersonal verb, we get: 
What [is there] to-me and to-you Jesus son of-the most-high God!
or:
What [is there] [between] me and you Jesus son of-the most-high God!
or:
What have we to do with thee.........


-- 
Best regards,
    Dave Smith.
    (B.A.2,1, Science & Technology, Open Univerity.)
    168 Bristol Road,
    Frampton Cotterell,
    Bristol, BS36 2AX,
    U.K.
eMail    <DaveAt168 at aol.com>
WWW:     <http://www.sangallen56.pwp.blueyonder.co.uk>




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