[B-Greek] translation of Mark 5:7

Curtis Hinson curtis at curtishinson.com
Thu Oct 27 07:46:59 EDT 2005


Check out this old post:

http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/test-archives/html4/1997-10/21570.html

Bless the Name
Curtis Hinson

Daveat168 at aol.com wrote the following on 10/26/2005 7:21 PM:

><< KAI KRACAS FWNH MEGALH LEGEI ...
>And crying-out to-sound great he-says ...
>
>TI ___ EMOI KAI SOI IHSOU UIE TOU QEOU TOU UYISTOU
>What ... to-me and to-you Jesus son of-the most-high God!
>he goes on to say ... I implore you, by God, don't torture me!
>
>My question is, how to translate the first part of what the demoniac says to
>Jesus.
>
>Are the words ... TI ___ EMOI KAI SOI ... a colloquial expression?
>Many bibles translate ... TI ___ EMOI KAI SOI ... as "What have I to do with
>you"
>To me, I think this paraphrase is not accurate.
>
>It seems to me that the expession ... TI EMOI KAI SOI ... is missing a verb
>but that the verb is implied and supposedly obvious.
>
>Is this a text ellipsis? - I don't think so.
>Was the text purposely written this way? - I think it was.
>If I am correct, what would be a good candidate for the missing verb?
>
>Dan Gleason
>
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>Dear Friend,
>   I have been working on the Latin for my project, and Like you, I have discovered that verbs are frequently omitted.  Usually the omitted verb is either obvious from context, or a form of 'esse' = 'to be', often in the impersonal form, 'there is/are/was/were'.
>If we take your puzzling phrase, and insert the impersonal verb, we get: 
>What [is there] to-me and to-you Jesus son of-the most-high God!
>or:
>What [is there] [between] me and you Jesus son of-the most-high God!
>or:
>What have we to do with thee.........
>
>
>  
>




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