[B-Greek] Question about Strong's #3709

Jeffrey B. Gibson jgibson000 at comcast.net
Fri Sep 16 19:48:07 EDT 2005


 

RAY MARTINEZ wrote:

> Hi Everyone:
>
> I am in the midst of writing an article about Romans 1:17-25  and the only bit of Greek grammar that I need to incorporate into the article is what "orge"/wrath is in the grammar.
>
> According to Dr. Gene Scott Ph.D. Stanford University, [oral teaching, January 2001] "orge" is a "present tense verb", HOWEVER the paper attachment 'hand-out' by Dr. Scott to everyone present at the lecture indicates the word in question is "N-NF-S" (whatever that means).

It means (presumably) noun, nominative feminine singular.

In any case, ORGH is not a verb, though it does have adverbial uses.

See:

http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/cgi-bin/ptext?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.04.0057%3Aentry%3D%2374768

Jeffrey
--

Jeffrey B. Gibson, D.Phil. (Oxon.)

1500 W. Pratt Blvd. #1
Chicago, IL 60626

jgibson000 at comcast.net
 




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