[B-Greek] Question about Strong's #3709

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at ioa.com
Fri Sep 16 19:34:06 EDT 2005


On Sep 16, 2005, at 7:19 PM, RAY MARTINEZ wrote:

> Hi Everyone:
>
> I am in the midst of writing an article about Romans 1:17-25  and  
> the only bit of Greek grammar that I need to incorporate into the  
> article is what "orge"/wrath is in the grammar.
>
> According to Dr. Gene Scott Ph.D. Stanford University, [oral  
> teaching, January 2001] "orge" is a "present tense verb", HOWEVER  
> the paper attachment 'hand-out' by Dr. Scott to everyone present at  
> the lecture indicates the word in question is "N-NF-S" (whatever  
> that means).
>
> Question: Did Dr. Scott mis-speak or what ?
>
> PLEASE someone tell me about orge and what it is in the grammar and  
> try to rectify it against what Dr. Scott said.

ORGH in Rom 1:17 is a noun; what N-NF-S means is Noun nominative  
feminine singular, which is exactly what the word is in that text.  
You give the impression that you have no direct knowledge of Greek;  
participation in discussion on this list is based upon an assumption  
that one is at least in the initial stages of learning Greek. ORGH is  
a noun in Rom 1:17; the root in that noun appears also in a verbal  
form ORGIZOMAI, but that verb does not appear in this text at all --  
nor in any Pauline text.


Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/




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