[B-Greek] Question about Strong's #3709
Jim West
jwest at highland.net
Fri Sep 16 19:31:18 EDT 2005
RAY MARTINEZ wrote:
> Hi Everyone:
>
> I am in the midst of writing an article about Romans 1:17-25 and the only bit of Greek grammar that I need to incorporate into the article is what "orge"/wrath is in the grammar.
>
> According to Dr. Gene Scott Ph.D. Stanford University, [oral teaching, January 2001] "orge" is a "present tense verb", HOWEVER the paper attachment 'hand-out' by Dr. Scott to everyone present at the lecture indicates the word in question is "N-NF-S" (whatever that means).
"orge" is not a verbal form, it is a noun. noun, nominative feminine
singular (hence the N NF S which was mysterious to you.
The verbal form of the same idea is "orgizw"
>
> Question: Did Dr. Scott mis-speak or what ?
Well he may have. If you don't know greek you might have misunderstood-
or he simply could have been speaking of the noun and the verb in close
proximity and confusion arose. In any event "orge" is not a verb.
>
> PLEASE someone tell me about orge and what it is in the grammar and try to rectify it against what Dr. Scott said.
"orge" means "wrath", <anger" or "indignation".
Best
Jim
--
Jim West
Biblical Studies Resources - http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
Biblical Theology Weblog - http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com
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