[B-Greek] 1John 2:27 - Indicative or Imperative
Elizabeth Kline
kline-dekooning at earthlink.net
Fri Sep 23 00:17:05 EDT 2005
On Sep 22, 2005, at 6:03 PM, Gary & Lynn O'Neal wrote:
>
> Thanks for the reply. Let me see if I am understanding you
> correctly. Because the construction KAQWS + [indicative verb] +
> [imperative verb] is rare, does this make you lean toward seeing
> MENETE as an indicative?
>
> Doesn't Phil. 2:12 fit the pattern on KAQWS + [indicative verb] +
> [imperative verb]?
>
> hWSTE, AGAPHTOI MOU, KAQWS PANTOTE hUPHKOUSATE, MH hWS EN THi
> PAROUSIAi MOU MONON ALLA NUN POLLWi MALLON EN THi APOUSIAi MOU,
> META FOBOU KAI TROMOU THN hEAUTWN SWTHRIAN KATERGAZESQE.
Gary,
I wasn't drawing any conclusions about this. I made an error in my
search criteria for the GNT. I initially limited the scope to 1John
and forgot to switch back to the entire GNT. That explains why I
wasn't finding any examples. Working with the entire GNT produced a
number of hits for KAQWS + [indicative verb] + [imperative verb] and
after weeding the hits Phil. 2:12 stands out as fitting the pattern
found in 1John 2:27. There may be others (weeding is time consuming!).
The evidence from the GNT and LXX demonstrates that the both the
imperative and indicative are possible. The indicative may be more
probable but probability doesn't carry much weight in arguments about
syntax.
Elizabeth Kline
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