[B-Greek] TON CRISTON TOU QEOU? (Luke 9:20)

Gary Coombs Gary.Coombs at shadowmountain.org
Fri Aug 4 19:59:10 EDT 2006


Could it be that the reason for the accusative "ME" as well as "TON
CHRISTON TOU QEOU" is the common occurrence of the infinitive taking the
accusative of general reference and as Webb said, it has assimilated the
case to the ME in the question.

Gary Coombs

-----Original Message-----
From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of George F Somsel
Sent: Friday, August 04, 2006 4:28 PM
To: webb at selftest.net; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] TON CRISTON TOU QEOU? (Luke 9:20)

It might help to have a larger portion of the text before us
   
  EIPENDE AUTOIS, "hUMEIS DE TINA ME LEGETE EINAI?"  PETROS DE
APOKRIQEIS EIPEN, "TON XRISTON TOU QEOU."
   
  Normally we might expect "SU EI hO XRISTOS", but Lk has assimilated
the case to the ME in the question.  That is the reason for the
accusative.
   
  ________
  

"webb at selftest.net" <webb at selftest.net> wrote:
  Dear Listees,

Is there an implied subject and verb within Peter's pithy pronouncement,


TON CRISTON TOU QEOU in Luke 9:20? For example, 

EGW KALEW SE TON CRISTON TOU QEOU

Or does the accusative simply come indirectly from the previous LEGETE,
or
from EINAI?

Webb Mealy

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george
gfsomsel
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