[B-Greek] TON CRISTON TOU QEOU? (Luke 9:20)

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Fri Aug 4 22:46:30 EDT 2006


On Aug 4, 2006, at 7:59 PM, Gary Coombs wrote:

> Could it be that the reason for the accusative "ME" as well as "TON
> CHRISTON TOU QEOU" is the common occurrence of the infinitive  
> taking the
> accusative of general reference and as Webb said, it has  
> assimilated the
> case to the ME in the question.

No, I think that the ME is in fact the direct object of LEGETE, while  
TINA is the predicate word; TON CRISTON TOU QEOU is an answer to TINA  
and in the same case because the same construction is understood: EGW  
DE SE LEGW EINAI TON CRISTON TOU QEOU.

>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
> [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of George F  
> Somsel
> Sent: Friday, August 04, 2006 4:28 PM
> To: webb at selftest.net; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] TON CRISTON TOU QEOU? (Luke 9:20)
>
> It might help to have a larger portion of the text before us
>
>   EIPENDE AUTOIS, "hUMEIS DE TINA ME LEGETE EINAI?"  PETROS DE
> APOKRIQEIS EIPEN, "TON XRISTON TOU QEOU."
>
>   Normally we might expect "SU EI hO XRISTOS", but Lk has assimilated
> the case to the ME in the question.  That is the reason for the
> accusative.
>
>   ________
>
>
> "webb at selftest.net" <webb at selftest.net> wrote:
>   Dear Listees,
>
> Is there an implied subject and verb within Peter's pithy  
> pronouncement,
>
>
> TON CRISTON TOU QEOU in Luke 9:20? For example,
>
> EGW KALEW SE TON CRISTON TOU QEOU
>
> Or does the accusative simply come indirectly from the previous  
> LEGETE,
> or
> from EINAI?
>
> Webb Mealy
>
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>
> george
> gfsomsel
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Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/





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