[B-Greek] LATREUW AND LATREIA Revisited
George F Somsel
gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Fri Aug 11 19:33:42 EDT 2006
While the way in which words have been used in previous texts is generally a good guide to what might be expected in another text, one must remember that it is because of the usage in the previous texts that one looks for that meaning in others. That may sound confusing, but it boils down to the fact that we know it may mean something because it has in the past. Does that mean that it couldn't have another meaning that we hadn't previously recognized? No! Just ask Ann Nyland about the meanings of words which have been discovered from papyri and inscriptions. If they hadn't been used in the papyri and inscriptions then we might not suspect that they could have a meaning different from what we previously knew. Remember: "When I use a word . . . it means just what I choose it to mean . . ."
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Danny Dixon <bereandad2003 at yahoo.com> wrote:
On Monday September 28 19:36:17 EDT 1998, Ben Crick (ben.crick at argonet.co.uk) wrote "Philippians 3:3 PNEUMATI" in response to a question on Monday 28 September 98 (14:14:36 +1100).
tduke at westpac.com.au wrote:
'hOI PNEUMATI QEOU LATREUONTES'
Should this verse be translated: '(we) worship by the Spirit of God' or 'we worship the Spirit of God' ? or indeed, something else!
Ben replied:
Tim:
The Bauer-Arndt-Gingrich Lexicon comes to our aid here. It cites:
"hOI PNEUMATI QEOU LATROUONTES /those who worship by the Spirit of God/ Phil 3:3" (s.v. LATREUW, page 468).
LATREUW is one of those verbs which govern the Dative; it means not so much "to worship" but "to render service to", hence the dative case of
the One to Whom the service is rendered. LATREUW without the Dative object implies worship to /God/ (understood).
. . . . . . . .
Revd Ben Crick, BA CF
232 Canterbury Road, Birchington, Kent, CT7 9TD (UK)
http://www.cnetwork.co.uk/crick.htm
I have recently been giving thought to LATREUW AND LATREIA, and have been wondering if one should feel bound to restrict the meaning of a word solely on the basis of its usage in previous texts. This is a lexicographical question. It seems to me that nothing is ultimately "understood" if an author chooses to use a word either metaphorically or in a new manner altogether from what has heretofore been so. LATREUW, for example, while in the pagan literature might be used of (not imply) worship to the gods (See Moulton and Milligan), that usage is not restricted to that understanding. LATREIA, for example seems to have to do with service that one renders gernerally, as ben seems to indicate regarding the verb. But are there uses LATREUW in a more generic context. Or is the literature completely limited to the service of worship that goes to the gods, and, in the NT, to God?
Danny Andre' Dixon
george
gfsomsel
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