[B-Greek] Transcendent ekeinos referent?
Jason Kerrigan
jasonandshon at yahoo.com
Sat Aug 12 14:16:24 EDT 2006
Hello group,
Thanks for the responses Herold and Elizabeth. I appreciate your patience
with me. Although I have put my foot in my mouth previously when disagreeing with
some of the members of the list I *reluctantly* find myself *reluctant* to accept that
ekeinos transcends the immediate clause and refers all the way back to the first theos in John 1:18.
Are there any Biblical examples of a transcendent ekeinos referent? I know Elizabeth
mentioned extra-biblical uses, but if there are no biblical examples of this principle
then I would probably find myself shunning John 1:18 as a sole example.
Also, I know there is a strong consensus against John 1:18 being understood as the
words of John the Baptist, but I do not take Origen's stance on this issue lightly, and
when looking at the context I do not see any reason why his view cannot be
vindicated. These words were spoken after Christ's baptism, and they are no less
profound than the Baptist's profession in John 3:25-35 (if we take the entire passage to
be spoken by him).
I am not trying to be contentious just for the sake of being thus,
greatfully and respectfully anticipating the groups response,
Jason Kerrigan
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