[B-Greek] aorist subjunctive in John 15:8

Matt Rondeau mrondeau at mhc-oxford.org
Fri Aug 18 13:17:29 EDT 2006



I was just curious how most of you would translate the aorist
subjunctive in John 15:8.  Many translations use "prove to be" rather
than "become."  This is interesting to me especially in relation to John
12:36, which contains the exact form of the lexeme, but is translated
"become" by the same translations which have it as "prove to be" in John
15:8.  Thank you for your input.

Matthew Rondeau




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