[B-Greek] aorist subjunctive in John 15:8

Craig J newsgroupstuff at gmail.com
Fri Aug 18 18:16:24 EDT 2006


> I was just curious how most of you would translate the aorist 
> subjunctive in John 15:8.  Many translations use "prove to 
> be" rather than "become."  This is interesting to me 
> especially in relation to John 12:36, which contains the 
> exact form of the lexeme, but is translated "become" by the 
> same translations which have it as "prove to be" in John 
> 15:8.  Thank you for your input.
> 
> Matthew Rondeau

John 15:8 EN TOUTWi EDOXASQH hO PATHR MOU hINA KARPON POLUN FERHTE KAI
GENHSQE EMOI MAQHTAI

Perhaps it is just too interpretative on the part of the translators. Maybe
they were theologically uncomfortable to have "become" linked with works
("fruit", 15:8), but not so uncomfortable when linked with faith ("believe",
12:36)..?

It seems to me one may as well translate it simply as "and be my disciples"
rather than say "and so prove to be my disciples" (ESV). Alternatively could
use 'become' instead of 'be', if the change of condition is being emphasised
rather than the state of being. Not sure how significant the Aorist is
here..?

In my BAGD (2nd edition, 1979), I would think it is either usage I.4.a. (of
persons and things which change their nature, to indicate their entering a
new condition: become something) or usage II.1. (as a substitute for the
forms of EIMI), pp160-161.

--
Craig Johnson
Brisbane, Australia
Blog Experiment: http://bloggledegook.blogspot.com/




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